NDA Constitution, governance and institutions previous year questions with solutions

Answer: (b) Two

Method. Parts of the Constitution

Part V is the Union (correct). Part X is the Scheduled and Tribal Areas (correct). Part XI, not XII, is Relations between the Union and the States (III wrong). Part XX, not XIV, is Amendment of the Constitution; Part XIV is Services under the Union and the States (IV wrong). So two pairs are correct. Source: Constitution, list of Parts.

Answer: (c) Three

Method. Parts of the Constitution

Part IX-A is the Municipalities (74th Amendment); Part IX-B is the Co-operative Societies (97th Amendment); Part X is the Scheduled and Tribal Areas, and 'Relations between the Union and the States' is Part XI; Part XII is Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits. So I, II and IV are correct: three. Source: Constitution, list of Parts.

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Method. Objective Resolution

Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objective Resolution on 13 December 1946, and it was adopted on 22 January 1947. It became the basis of the Preamble. Source: Laxmikanth, Making of the Constitution.

Answer: (a) 28 States and 8 Union Territories

Method. States and Union Territories

Since the creation of the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh (2019) and the merger of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (January 2020), India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

True at the sitting (2022) and, to my knowledge, still the position in 2026; verify at print.

Answer: (b) Sikkim

Method. 35th Amendment, 1974

The 35th Amendment (1974) made Sikkim an associate State of the Union (Tenth Schedule then added). The 36th Amendment (1975) made it a full State. Source: Laxmikanth, list of amendments.

Answer: (a) To ensure participation of good people in politics

Method. Functions of a constitution

A constitution lays down the basic rules and coordination among people, specifies who has the power to make decisions, limits the power of government and guarantees rights, and enables a just society. Ensuring the participation of 'good people' in politics is not among them. Source: NCERT Class 11, Indian Constitution at Work, ch. 1.

Answer: (d) It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.

Method. Features of the Constitution

The Constitution lays down basic rules, specifies the powers of government and is the supreme law of the land (Art. 13, 245). India does not have judicial supremacy; the Constitution is supreme and Parliament is sovereign within it. Source: Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) The Preamble is enforceable in a Court of Law.

Method. Preamble

'Socialist' and 'secular' were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), and the Preamble states the objects of the Constitution. A Republic means that the head of state is elected and the people are the source of authority. The Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law (Berubari Union, 1960), so (c) is NOT correct. Source: Laxmikanth, Preamble.

Answer: (b) 42nd Amendment Act

Method. 42nd Amendment, Preamble

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted 'socialist', 'secular' and 'integrity' into the Preamble. Source: Laxmikanth, Preamble.

Answer: (c) B.N. Rau and S.N. Mukherjee

Method. Officials who assisted the Constituent Assembly

B.N. Rau, Constitutional Adviser, prepared the initial draft, and S.N. Mukherjee, Chief Draftsman, were the two civil servants who assisted the Assembly. K.M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar were members of the Drafting Committee, not civil servants. Source: Laxmikanth, Making of the Constitution.

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Method. Constituent Assembly, national flag resolution

Jawaharlal Nehru moved the resolution adopting the national flag in the Constituent Assembly on 22 July 1947. Source: Laxmikanth, Making of the Constitution.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Method. Article 394, provisions effective on 26 November 1949

Article 394 brought into force on 26 November 1949 the provisions on citizenship (Arts. 5-9), elections (Art. 324), the provisional Parliament, temporary and transitional provisions and the short title. Emergency provisions and the appointment of judges came into force on 26 January 1950. So 1 and 2 only. Source: Constitution Art. 394; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (b) 4 3 1 2

Method. Constitutional amendments and their subjects

52nd Amendment (1985): Tenth Schedule, disqualification on grounds of defection (A-4). 73rd Amendment (1992): Panchayati Raj, Part IX (B-3). 61st Amendment (1988): voting age lowered from 21 to 18 (C-1). 86th Amendment: Article 21A, Right to Education (D-2). Code 4 3 1 2 is (b). Source: Laxmikanth, list of amendments.

The 86th Amendment Act was passed in 2002, not 2006 as printed; the year does not affect the answer.

Answer: (c) 2 only

Method. Fundamental Rights, Articles 21 and 21A

The right to work is not a Fundamental Right (Art. 41, a Directive Principle). The right to privacy was held a Fundamental Right under Art. 21 in Puttaswamy (2017). Article 21A gives free and compulsory education for children aged six to fourteen, not eighteen. So 2 only. Source: Constitution; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Method. Article 19(1) and restrictions

The freedoms in Article 19(1) are not absolute; clauses (2) to (6) allow the State to impose reasonable restrictions on grounds such as sovereignty and integrity, security of the State, public order, decency and morality. Both statements are correct. Source: Constitution Art. 19; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (a) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act

Method. 42nd Amendment, Fundamental Duties

Article 51A was inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. The 86th Amendment (2002) added the eleventh duty. Source: Laxmikanth.

Answer: (a) Right to adequate livelihood

Method. Justiciable rights versus Directive Principles

The right to an adequate means of livelihood is a Directive Principle (Art. 39(a)) and cannot be enforced in court. Right against exploitation, rights of the accused (Art. 20-22) and the right to life and personal liberty (Art. 21) are Fundamental Rights and are justiciable. Source: Constitution Parts III, IV.

Answer: (d) Severability

Method. Writs, Articles 32 and 226

The five writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. 'Severability' is a doctrine of constitutional interpretation, not a writ. Source: Constitution Art. 32; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) Right to be conferred with titles

Method. Fundamental Rights, Articles 17, 18, 21A, 30

The right to education is Art. 21A and the minorities' right to establish educational institutions is Art. 30(1). Art. 17 abolishes untouchability. Article 18 abolishes titles; there is no right to be conferred with titles, so (c) is not a Fundamental Right. Source: Constitution Part III.

Answer: (d) B.R. Ambedkar

Method. Ambedkar on Directive Principles

B.R. Ambedkar, in the Constituent Assembly debate on the Draft Constitution (4 November 1948), described the Directive Principles as a novel feature of the Constitution. Source: Laxmikanth, Directive Principles.

Answer: (a) Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India

Method. Equality of men and women

Article 14 (equality before the law) and Article 15 (no discrimination on grounds of sex among others) together give equality to men and women. Article 20 protects against retroactive and double penal action, and the Fifth Schedule concerns Scheduled Areas. Source: Constitution Arts. 14, 15.

Answer: (a) Fundamental Duties

Method. Article 51A

Part IV-A, Article 51A, lists the Fundamental Duties. Suspension of Fundamental Rights is Art. 359, special powers of Governors are in Part VI, and writs are in Art. 32/⁠226. Source: Constitution Art. 51A.

Answer: (b) Equal justice and free legal aid

Method. 42nd Amendment and Directive Principles

The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Art. 39A (equal justice and free legal aid), Art. 43A (workers' participation in management) and Art. 48A (environment). Art. 38(2), minimising income inequalities, came with the 44th Amendment (1978), Art. 43B (co-operatives) with the 97th Amendment (2011) and early childhood care in Art. 45 with the 86th Amendment (2002). Source: Laxmikanth, Directive Principles.

Answer: (b) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.

Method. Article 46, Directive Principle

Article 46: the State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections, and protect them from social injustice. Source: Constitution Part IV.

Answer: (a) Article 19

Method. Rights available only to citizens

Article 19 (six freedoms) is available only to citizens, as are Arts. 15, 16, 29 and 30. Articles 20, 21 and 22 apply to 'persons', citizens and foreigners alike (Art. 22 excludes enemy aliens). Source: Laxmikanth, Fundamental Rights.

Answer: (c) Right to citizenship

Method. Fundamental Rights, Part III

Part III has the right to equality, freedom, against exploitation, freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights and constitutional remedies. Citizenship is governed by Part II (Arts. 5-11) and Parliament's law, and is not a Fundamental Right. Source: Constitution Part III; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) Protection of personal law

Method. Directive Principles: Articles 39A, 49, 50

Equal justice and free legal aid is Art. 39A, protection of monuments is Art. 49, and separation of the judiciary from the executive is Art. 50. 'Protection of personal law' is not a Directive Principle (Art. 44 asks for a uniform civil code). Source: Constitution Part IV.

Answer: (b) I, III, II, IV

Method. Table of Precedence

In the Table of Precedence the order is: President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Governors within their respective States, …, Chief Justice of India and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. So I, III, II, IV. Source: Table of Precedence (Government of India, 1979); Laxmikanth.

Answer: (d) The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation

Method. Departments under the Ministry of Home Affairs

The Ministry of Home Affairs has the Departments of Internal Security, States, Official Language, Home, Border Management, and Jammu and Kashmir Affairs. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Source: Government of India, Allocation of Business Rules.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Method. Law officers of India

Statement 1 matches Art. 76(2): the Attorney General advises the Government on legal matters referred to him by the President and performs other duties of a legal character. Statement 2: the Solicitor General is the second law officer of the country and is assisted by Additional Solicitors General (these posts are not constitutional offices). Both are correct. Source: Constitution Art. 76; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) 3

Method. Attorney General, Articles 76 and 88

1: the Attorney General is the first law officer of the Government of India. 2: Article 88 gives him the right to speak in, but not to vote in, either House. 3: he is appointed by the President (Art. 76(1)). 4: he is not a whole-time counsel; he is not a government servant and may practise privately (with restrictions). So statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: three, option (c). Source: Constitution Art. 76, 88; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (b) Chaudhary Charan Singh

Method. Prime Ministers' tenures

Charan Singh was PM from 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980 (about 170 days). Chandra Shekhar served about 223 days (1990-91), Deve Gowda about 325 days (1996-97) and Shastri about 19 months (1964-66). So Charan Singh is the shortest.

Answer: (a) He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India.

Method. Attorney General, Article 76 and 88

The Attorney General advises the Government of India on legal matters (Art. 76(2)), is qualified to be a Supreme Court judge (Art. 76(1)) and receives remuneration the President determines (Art. 76(4)). He has the right of audience in all courts in India (Art. 76(3)), not only the Supreme Court, so (a) is NOT correct. Source: Constitution Art. 76.

Answer: (c) The Union Home Minister

Method. North Eastern Council, chairmanship

The Union Home Minister has been the ex officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council since the Union Cabinet's decision of June 2018; the Minister of DoNER became its Vice-Chairman. The President and the Prime Minister are not members in that capacity. Source: NEC Act, 1971 (s. 3, as amended 2002: the President nominates the Chairman); Union Cabinet decision, 13 June 2018.

Answer at the sitting (September 2018): the Union Home Minister, by the Cabinet decision of 13 June 2018 that made him ex officio Chairman and the DoNER Minister Vice-Chairman. Position now (2026): unchanged.

Answer: (d) general emergency

Method. Article 352, national emergency

Article 352 deals with the proclamation of (national) emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion, the 'general emergency' of the options. Article 356 is failure of constitutional machinery in a State, Article 360 is financial emergency, and Article 359 suspends enforcement of Part III rights. Source: Constitution Part XVIII; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (d) The Attorney General of India

Method. Article 88: rights of Ministers and the Attorney General as to Houses

Article 88 gives every Minister and the Attorney General of India the right to speak in, and take part in the proceedings of, either House and any joint sitting, and of any committee of which he is named a member, without a vote. The Solicitor General and the CAG have no such right. The Vice-President sits in the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman and does not attend the Lok Sabha. Source: Constitution Art. 88; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Method. Money Bill, Articles 109 and 110

A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha (Art. 109(1)), so I is correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend it; it can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject, so II is correct. Source: Constitution Art. 109; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Method. Summoning, prorogation, adjournment (Article 85)

The President summons and prorogues the Houses (Art. 85). The Constitution does not give the Speaker a power to adjourn both Houses sine die; the Speaker adjourns the Lok Sabha only. After prorogation the President, not the Speaker, summons the Houses. Both statements are wrong. Source: Constitution Art. 85, 100; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (a) A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote

Method. Rajya Sabha election and Parliament

Of 245 Rajya Sabha members, 233 are elected by MLAs by the single transferable vote, a majority (12 are nominated), so (a) is correct. (b) The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members. (c) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved earlier by the President on the PM's advice. (d) Lok Sabha members do not vote for Rajya Sabha members. Source: Constitution Art. 80, 89; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) 2 only

Method. Parliamentary committees

The Public Accounts Committee (15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha members) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (15 Lok Sabha and 7 Rajya Sabha) have both Houses' members. The Estimates Committee (30) consists only of Lok Sabha members. So only 2 does not have Upper House members. Source: Laxmikanth, Parliamentary Committees.

Answer: (c) 14 days

Method. Money Bill, Article 109

The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha within 14 days of receipt, with or without recommendations. If it does not, the Bill is deemed passed by both Houses. Source: Constitution Art. 109.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Method. Article 191(1)(a), disqualification

Art. 191(1)(a) disqualifies a person who holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule, other than an office declared by law not to disqualify. So both 1 and 2. Source: Constitution Art. 191.

Answer: (b) British Parliament

Method. Parliamentary system, source

India adopted the Westminster model: a parliamentary system with a nominal head of state and a Cabinet answerable to the lower House. Source: Laxmikanth, Sources of the Constitution.

Answer: (d) 17th Lok Sabha

Method. Lok Sabha numbering

The 2014 elections formed the 16th Lok Sabha and the 2019 elections the 17th Lok Sabha.

True at the sitting (2022). The 2024 election formed the 18th Lok Sabha, but the 2019 election remains the 17th.

Answer: (b) Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House.

Method. Speaker's powers, Article 100

The Speaker presides, maintains order and can adjourn the House or suspend the sitting in the absence of a quorum (Art. 100(4)). He does not vote in the first instance; he votes only to break a tie (a casting vote, Art. 100(1)). So (b) is NOT a power. Source: Constitution Arts. 93, 100; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Method. Article 79, Parliament

Article 79: there shall be a Parliament for the Union consisting of the President and two Houses, the Council of States and the House of the People. Source: Constitution Art. 79.

Answer: (d) It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

Method. Rajya Sabha, Article 83

The Rajya Sabha is elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies by proportional representation with the single transferable vote, and one-third of its members retire every second year (Art. 83(1)). It is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution, so (d) is NOT correct. Source: Constitution Art. 80, 83.

Answer: (b) There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha

Method. Composition of Parliament (Articles 79, 80, 81, 331)

(a) is correct (Art. 79). (c) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. (d) The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha (Art. 80). (b) is incorrect: in 2018 the President could nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha under Article 331. Source: Constitution; Laxmikanth.

Answer at the sitting (2018) is (b). The 104th Amendment (in force January 2020) ended the Anglo-Indian nomination, so statement (b) is true today and the question would now have no 'not correct' option.

Answer: (a) One

Method. Territorial jurisdiction of High Courts

Lakshadweep is under the Kerala High Court (I wrong). Puducherry is under the Madras High Court (II right). Manipur has had its own High Court since 2013 (III wrong). The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the Calcutta High Court (IV wrong). So one pair is correct. Source: Laxmikanth, High Courts.

Answer: (c) Collegiate Jurisdiction

Method. Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

The Supreme Court has original (Art. 131, 32), appellate (Art. 132-136) and advisory (Art. 143) jurisdiction, besides review and others. There is no 'collegiate jurisdiction'; the Collegium is a method of appointment. Source: Laxmikanth.

Answer: (a) a law passed by the Parliament

Method. Article 231, common High Court

Article 231 lets Parliament, by law, establish a common High Court for two or more States (or for States and a Union Territory). Source: Constitution Art. 231.

Answer: (c) the President of India

Method. Article 124(2), appointment of Supreme Court judges

Every Supreme Court judge is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal, after consultation with the Chief Justice and such other judges as the President deems necessary. The Collegium recommends but the appointment is by the President. Source: Constitution Art. 124(2); Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) I and III

Method. PESA Act, 1996

Scheduled Areas are declared by the President under the Fifth Schedule, not by Gram Sabhas, so I is wrong. Gram Sabhas have powers over the management of community resources, so II is correct. PESA extends only to the Fifth Schedule areas, not to all States except those, so III is wrong. The 'not correct' statements are I and III. Source: Laxmikanth, Panchayati Raj.

Answer: (c) P.K. Thungon Committee

Method. Committees on Panchayati Raj

The P.K. Thungon Committee (1988) of the Parliamentary Consultative Committee recommended constitutional recognition of the Panchayati Raj bodies. Source: Laxmikanth, Panchayati Raj.

Other committees of the option list are not associated with it.

Answer: (d) Abhijit Sen Committee

Method. Panchayati Raj committees

Balwant Rai Mehta (1957), Ashok Mehta (1977) and L.M. Singhvi (1986) all dealt with Panchayati Raj. The Abhijit Sen Committee was on long-term grain policy and is unrelated to Panchayati Raj. Source: Laxmikanth, Panchayati Raj.

Answer: (b) an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government

Method. 73rd Amendment

The 73rd Amendment (1992, in force April 1993) added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, which set up Panchayats as units of self-government. The 74th Amendment dealt with municipalities. Source: Laxmikanth, Panchayati Raj.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

Method. Article 371A, Nagaland

Under Art. 371A(1)(a) no Act of Parliament applies to Nagaland in respect of religious or social practices of the Nagas, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources, unless the Assembly so decides. Boundaries are not covered, since the Union can alter boundaries under Art. 3. So 1, 2 and 3 only. Source: Constitution Art. 371A.

Answer: (a) 243ZD

Method. Article 243ZD

Article 243ZD provides for the Committee for District Planning; Art. 243ZE is the Committee for Metropolitan Planning, and 243ZB and 243ZC deal with Union Territories and the Part's non-application. Source: Constitution Part IX-A, IX-B.

Answer: (d) Regulation of land revenue

Method. Eleventh Schedule, entry 2

Entry 2 of the Eleventh Schedule reads: land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation. Regulation of land revenue is not a Panchayat subject. Source: Constitution Eleventh Schedule, Art. 243G.

Answer: (b) Self-Government

Method. Panchayati Raj

The 73rd Amendment made Panchayats institutions of self-government (Art. 243B, 243G). Source: Constitution Part IX; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Method. Fifth and Sixth Schedules

The Fifth Schedule governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in all States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, where the Sixth Schedule applies. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha have Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule. So the Fifth Schedule does not apply to 2 and 3 only. Source: Constitution Fifth Schedule; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) Higher education

Method. Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G) subjects

The Eleventh Schedule lists non-conventional energy sources, roads, culverts and bridges, libraries, and 'education, including primary and secondary schools' and technical training and vocational education. Higher education is not listed. Source: Constitution, Eleventh Schedule; Laxmikanth, Panchayati Raj.

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Method. Political parties in a democracy

Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up by parties, parties put forward policies and programmes from which voters choose, and parties shape public opinion by raising issues. All three are correct. Source: NCERT Class 10, Democratic Politics II, ch. 4.

Answer: (b) NITI Aayog

Method. Constitutional and statutory bodies

The Finance Commission (Art. 280) and the UPSC (Art. 315) are constitutional bodies; the National Green Tribunal was set up by the NGT Act, 2010. NITI Aayog was created in 2015 by a Cabinet resolution and has no constitutional or statutory basis. Source: Laxmikanth.

Answer: (b) 52^nd Amendment

Method. 52nd Amendment, Tenth Schedule

The anti-defection law was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985) as the Tenth Schedule. The 91st Amendment (2003) later tightened it. Source: Laxmikanth.

Answer: (a) I and II only

Method. CAG, Articles 148 and 151

I is correct (Art. 148(1)). II is correct (Art. 148(4)). III is wrong: the CAG's reports on Union accounts are submitted to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament (Art. 151(1)), not to the Prime Minister. So I and II only. Source: Constitution Arts. 148, 151.

Answer: (a) a Judge of the Supreme Court

Method. Article 324(5)

The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court (proof of misbehaviour or incapacity, by Parliament's address). Source: Constitution Art. 324(5).

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Method. Democratic rule

Democracy rests on the consent of the governed and political equality (one person, one vote, one value). Accountability runs the other way: rulers are accountable to the ruled, so feature 3 is wrong. Source: NCERT Class 9, Democratic Politics I, ch. 2.

Answer: (b) Tenth Schedule

Method. Tenth Schedule

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment (1985), contains the provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection. The Ninth Schedule is laws protected from judicial review, the Eleventh is Panchayats and the Sixth is tribal areas of the North East. Source: Constitution.

Answer: (d) The National Commission for Women

Method. Constitutional versus statutory commissions

The National Commissions for SCs (Art. 338), STs (Art. 338A) and Backward Classes (Art. 338B, 102nd Amendment, 2018) are constitutional bodies. The National Commission for Women was set up under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, so it is statutory. Source: Laxmikanth.

Answer: (b) The Union Finance Minister

Method. GST Council, Article 279A

Under Article 279A(4) the GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister; the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance and the State Ministers in charge of Finance are members. Source: Constitution Art. 279A.

Answer: (a) First-Past-the-Post System

Method. Electoral system

Members of the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies are elected from single-member constituencies by the first-past-the-post (simple plurality) system. Proportional representation (single transferable vote) is used only for indirect elections, such as the Rajya Sabha and President. Source: NCERT Class 11, Indian Constitution at Work, Election and Representation; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (b) The Chief Election Commissioner

Method. Article 324(5), removal of Election Commissioners

The proviso to Article 324(5) says any other Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. The CEC himself is removed like a Supreme Court judge. Source: Constitution Art. 324(5).

Answer: (a) Santhanam Committee

Method. Central Vigilance Commission, origin

The CVC was set up in 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on the Prevention of Corruption (1962-64). It was given statutory status in 2003. Source: Laxmikanth, CVC.

Answer: (c) The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office

Method. CAG, Article 148

The CAG is appointed by the President and removed like a Supreme Court judge (Art. 148(1), (2)); his salary is charged to the Consolidated Fund (Art. 148(3), 112). Article 148(4) bars him from any further office under the Government of India or a State after he ceases to hold office, so (c) is NOT correct. Source: Constitution Art. 148; Laxmikanth.

Answer: (c) The Election Commission of India

Method. Article 324, Election Commission

Article 324(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission of India, a body, not in the Chief Election Commissioner alone, the Supreme Court or Parliament. Source: Constitution Art. 324.

Answer: (d) Administrative Reforms Commission

Method. Origin of the Lokpal idea

The Administrative Reforms Commission (1966-70, first chairman Morarji Desai) recommended the offices of Lokpal and Lokayukta. The Santhanam Committee dealt with corruption and led to the CVC; the Shah Commission inquired into the Emergency. Source: Laxmikanth, Lokpal and Lokayuktas.

Answer: (c) FSSAI

Method. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006: FSSAI

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), set up under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, regulates and enforces food-safety law in India. The FDA is the US regulator; the WHO and the FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization) are UN agencies and enforce no Indian law. Source: Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

The question says 'food security', but FSSAI is the only Indian agency among the options that enforces food laws; the National Food Security Act, 2013 is run by the Food Department and the States.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Method. Symbols Order 1968, para 6B: conditions for a national party

Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (as in force in 2017) a party is a national party if it (i) polls 6% of valid votes in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or Assemblies (and wins four Lok Sabha seats), or (ii) wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats (11 of 543) from at least three States, or (iii) is recognised as a State party in FOUR States. So statement 3 ('two states') is wrong and statement 4 (headquarters in New Delhi) is not a condition. Only 1 and 2 remain, which is option (c).

Shortcut. Statements 3 and 4 are plainly wrong, which leaves only (c).

Statements 1 and 2 are loose paraphrases of the Symbols Order (statement 1 omits the four-seat requirement); the intended answer is (c). Position as of 2017.