NDA General Studies · Geography · 86 questions · 2017 to 2026

NDA India: economic and human geography previous year questions with solutions

India's economic and human geography gives four or five General Studies questions a sitting, steady across the decade and heaviest in 2025. The questions are single facts: a land-use class, a power plant and its state, a port and its river. Every question UPSC has set on it since 2017, solved. Grouped by the method each needs, newest first; open a question for its answer and worked solution.

34.1 Land use and agriculture (15)34.2 Mineral resources (11)34.3 Energy, power and river-valley projects (14)34.4 Manufacturing industries (8)34.5 Railways and roads (13)34.6 Ports and inland waterways (10)34.7 Population, settlements, languages and economic activities (15)

34.1 Land use and agriculture

1. NDA 2026 (II)
Consider the following statements regarding the slash-and-burn agricultural practices in India:
I. This practice is a primitive subsistence farming.
II. This practice is known as Jhum in the North Eastern Hill region.
III. When soil fertility decreases, farmers shift to a fresh patch of land.
Which of the statements given above is/⁠are correct?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Method. Shifting cultivation

Slash-and-burn is a primitive subsistence farming system; it is called Jhum in the North-East hill region; and farmers move to a new patch once soil fertility drops. All three statements hold. Source: NCERT Class 10, Contemporary India II, ch. Agriculture.

2. NDA 2026 (I)
As per the land-use categories in the Land Revenue Records of India, “a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than 5 years” is called
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) fallow, other than current fallow

Method. Land-use classification

Land left uncultivated for more than one year but less than five years is fallow other than current fallow. Current fallow is one year or less, and culturable wasteland is more than five years. Source: land-use classification, Land Use Statistics of India.

3. NDA 2025 (II)
Which of the following statements with reference to crops cultivated in India is/⁠are correct?
1. Bajra grows well in sandy and shallow black soils, whereas red and shallow black soil is suited for Ragi
2. Bajra is predominantly grown in states like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra, while Ragi is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh
Select the answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Method. Millet crops: soils and regions

Bajra grows well on sandy and shallow black soils and is grown mainly in Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana. Ragi suits red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils and is grown mainly in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh. Both statements agree with this. Source: NCERT Class 10, Contemporary India II, ch. Agriculture.

4. NDA 2025 (I)
As per the Land Revenue Records, any land is categorized as Culturable Waste-Land if it is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 5 years

Method. Land-use classification

Culturable wasteland is land left uncultivated for more than five years (it was once cultivated or could be); land left fallow for one to five years is fallow other than current fallow. Source: land-use classification, Land Use Statistics of India.

5. NDA 2024 (II)
Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Culturable waste land

Method. Land-use classification

In the Land Revenue Records, current fallow is land left fallow for one year or less, fallow other than current fallow is land left fallow for one to five years, and culturable wasteland is land left uncultivated for more than five years. So more than five years is culturable wasteland. Source: land-use classification, Land Use Statistics of India.

6. NDA 2023 (I)
Which one of the following tribes from India’s North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Singphos

Method. History of tea in Assam

The Singpho chiefs of the Sadiya region drank and made tea long before the British; Robert Bruce found the wild plant in 1823 through the Singpho chief Bessa Gam, and the Singphos are the tribe credited with the earliest known tea cultivation and processing. Khasis, Garos and Jaintias are Meghalaya hill tribes with no such tea record. Source: standard history of the Assam tea industry.

7. NDA 2022 (II)
In India, a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years is labelled as
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) fallow other than current fallow

Method. Land-use categories

Fallow other than current fallow is cultivable land left uncultivated for one to five years. Current fallow is left for one year or less; culturable wasteland is left uncultivated for more than five years (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, land use).

8. NDA 2021 (II)
Which of the following pairs of crop and product is/⁠are correctly matched?
1. Food crop: Ragi
2. Cash crop: Jute
3. Plantation crop: Coconut
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Method. Classification of crops

Ragi is a food crop (coarse cereal), jute is a cash (fibre) crop, and coconut is a plantation crop. All three pairs are correct (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, crops).

9. NDA 2021 (II)
Which one of the following is not a feature of agriculture in India?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Predominance of cash crops

Method. Features of Indian agriculture

Subsistence farming, population pressure on land and dependence on the monsoon characterise Indian agriculture. Food crops, not cash crops, dominate, so predominance of cash crops is not a feature (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, agriculture).

10. NDA 2020 (I)
Land Revenue Records maintained in India have categorized land-use into
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) 9 categories

Method. Land-use categories

The land revenue records classify land use under nine categories: forests; land put to non-agricultural use; barren and wasteland; permanent pastures; miscellaneous tree crops; culturable wasteland; current fallow; fallow other than current fallow; net sown area (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, land resources).

11. NDA 2020 (I)
Dry land farming in India is largely confined to areas with rainfall less than
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 75 cm

Method. Dryland farming

Dryland farming is largely confined to areas with annual rainfall below 75 cm, growing hardy crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, agriculture).

12. NDA 2020 (I)
For an area to be excluded from the drought-prone category, what percentage of its gross cropped area should be under irrigation?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 30 per cent or more

Method. Drought-prone area criterion

Areas with 30 per cent or more of the gross cropped area under irrigation are excluded from the drought-prone category (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, drought-prone area programme).

13. NDA 2019 (II)
Which one of the following is a Rabi crop in the Northern States of India?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Barley

Method. Rabi crops of northern India

Rice, bajra and ragi are kharif crops. Barley is sown in October-November and harvested in March-April, so it is a rabi crop (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, cropping seasons).

14. NDA 2018 (I)
Which of the following conditions is/⁠are essential for tea cultivation?
1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate
2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm
3. Soil should contain good amount of lime
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Method. Conditions for tea cultivation

Tea needs a tropical and sub-tropical climate and heavy rain, 150-250 cm: 1 and 2 correct. It needs deep, well-drained, acidic, humus-rich soil; lime is harmful, so 3 is wrong (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, plantation crops).

15. NDA 2017 (I)
Consider the following statements pertaining to Coffee plantation in India:
(1) Need warm and moist climate with a spell of dry weather during the ripening period.
(2) Rolling fields having good drainage.
(3) Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding temperature 35° C.
(4) Karnataka is the leading producer in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4

Method. Climatic and soil requirements of coffee

Coffee needs a warm, moist climate (about 15-28 C) with a dry spell at ripening, and well-drained rolling hill slopes: 1 and 2 correct. It is grown under shade and is damaged by strong sun and temperatures above about 30 C, so 3 is wrong. Karnataka (Kodagu, Chikmagalur, Hassan) is the leading producer: 4 correct. Answer 1, 2 and 4 (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, plantation crops).

34.2 Mineral resources

16. NDA 2025 (II)
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (City)
A. Bewar
B. Balaghat
C. Bilaspur
D. Ballary
List II (Mineral)
1. Manganese
2. Mica
3. Iron-ore
4. Bauxite
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) 2 1 4 3

Method. Mineral centres

Beawar (Ajmer, Rajasthan) is in the mica belt (2); Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh) is a major manganese area (1); Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh) lies in the Amarkantak-Maikal bauxite area (4); Bellary (Ballari, Karnataka) is an iron-ore district (3). So A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3. Source: standard reference on Indian minerals; UPSC spellings kept in the question.

17. NDA 2025 (II)
Which one of the following Indian States account for the maximum deposits of Bauxite and Chromite?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Odisha

Method. Bauxite and chromite deposits

Odisha has the largest bauxite reserves (Koraput, Kalahandi, Panchpatmali) and nearly all of India's chromite (Sukinda valley, Jajpur). Andhra Pradesh also has bauxite, but not chromite on that scale. Source: Indian Minerals Yearbook / Ministry of Mines.

18. NDA 2025 (I)
As per the Annual Report 2023-24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following states are the major producer of Copper in the country?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

Method. Copper-producing states

In the Ministry of Mines reports, Madhya Pradesh (Malanjkhand) and Rajasthan (Khetri-Kolihan belt) together give nearly all of India's copper ore, with Jharkhand (Singhbhum) a small share. Only (b) names both leaders. Source: Ministry of Mines Annual Report 2023-24 (copper ore, major producing states).

19. NDA 2023 (II)
Which one among the following pairs of mine and mineral is NOT correctly matched?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Kudremukh: Bauxite

Method. Mine-mineral pairs

Kudremukh (Chikmagalur, Karnataka) is an iron-ore mine, not a bauxite mine, so (d) is wrong. The other pairs are right: Bailadila (Chhattisgarh) iron ore, Zawar (Udaipur, Rajasthan) zinc-lead, Ghatsila (Singhbhum, Jharkhand) copper. Source: standard reference on Indian minerals.

20. NDA 2023 (I)
Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Madhya Pradesh

Method. Leading manganese-producing State

Among the States listed, Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of manganese ore in recent years (Odisha and Maharashtra are the others near the top). Karnataka comes below it; Jharkhand and Rajasthan are minor (standard reference: Indian Minerals Yearbook).

21. NDA 2023 (I)
Mica is mainly used in:
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) electrical and electronic industries.

Method. Uses of mica

Mica is an excellent insulator and withstands high voltages, so it is used mainly in electrical and electronic industries (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, minerals).

22. NDA 2019 (II)
Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Mica

Method. Metallic and non-metallic minerals

Iron, copper and bauxite (aluminium ore) are metallic. Mica is a non-metallic mineral (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, minerals).

23. NDA 2017 (II)
Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/⁠are correct?
1. It is known as black ore.
2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.
3. It possesses magnetic properties.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Method. Properties of magnetite

Magnetite is the black ore, highest in iron (about 60-70 per cent in ore, 72 per cent pure) and strongly magnetic. All three statements are correct (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, minerals; Majid Husain, Geography of India).

24. NDA 2017 (I)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Mineral)
(A) Manganese
(B) Gypsum
(C) Limestone
(D) Magnesite
List II (Leading State)
(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Karnataka
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Odisha
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 4 3 2 1

Method. Leading State by mineral

Manganese: Odisha (4). Gypsum: Rajasthan (3), by far the largest producer. Limestone: Karnataka (2), the State with the largest reserves. Magnesite: Uttarakhand (1), Almora-Pithoragarh belt. Code 4 3 2 1; option c fails because it gives gypsum to Karnataka (standard reference: Indian Minerals Yearbook, Geography of India).

25. NDA 2017 (I)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Place)
(A) Lakwa
(B) Malanjkhand
(C) Kalakot
(D) Zawar
List II (Mineral)
(1) Copper
(2) Petroleum
(3) Zinc
(4) Coal
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) 2 1 4 3

Method. Place-mineral matching

Lakwa: petroleum (Assam), A-2. Malanjkhand: copper (Madhya Pradesh), B-1. Kalakot: coal (tertiary field, Jammu), C-4. Zawar: zinc (Rajasthan), D-3. Code 2 1 4 3 (standard reference: Geography of India, minerals).

26. NDA 2017 (I)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Mineral deposit)
(A) Gypsum
(B) Graphite
(C) Fluorspar
(D) Nickel
List II (State)
(1) Odisha
(2) Gujarat
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) 4 3 2 1

Method. Mineral-State matching

Gypsum: Rajasthan (4). Graphite: Arunachal Pradesh (3). Fluorspar: Gujarat (2), Ambadongar. Nickel: Odisha (1), Sukinda. Code 4 3 2 1 (standard reference: Indian Minerals Yearbook, Geography of India).

34.3 Energy, power and river-valley projects

27. NDA 2025 (II)
Which one among the following is NOT a beneficiary state from the Vindhyachal Power Plant of the NTPC?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

Method. NTPC Vindhyachal beneficiaries

Vindhyachal (Singrauli, Madhya Pradesh) sits in the Western Region, supplying Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Uttar Pradesh is a Northern Region state served by the Singrauli and Rihand stations, so it is the one that is not a beneficiary. Source: NTPC station description.

28. NDA 2025 (II)
Consider the following pairs with reference to Thermal Power Plants and their location in respective states in India:
Thermal Power Plant — Located in State
I. Panki – Uttar Pradesh
II. Parli – Karnataka
III. Vijayawada – Telangana
IV. Vanakbari – Gujarat
How many of the pairs given above is/⁠are correctly matched?
Thermal Power Plant(blank)Located in State
I. Panki–Uttar Pradesh
II. Parli–Karnataka
III. Vijayawada–Telangana
IV. Vanakbari–Gujarat (the pairs are printed as a two-column list with italic column headings, an en dash between plant and state)
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) 2

Method. Thermal power plants by state

Panki (Kanpur) is in Uttar Pradesh and Vanakbori in Gujarat, so I and IV are right. Parli is in Maharashtra, not Karnataka, and the Vijayawada plant (Dr Narla Tata Rao TPS) is in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana, so II and III are wrong. Two pairs are correct. Source: standard reference on Indian thermal power stations.

29. NDA 2025 (I)
Which one among the following is NOT a major oil field located in Gujarat?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Moran

Method. Oil fields of Gujarat

Ankleshwar, Kosamba and Mehsana (with Kalol and Nawagam) are oil fields of Gujarat. Moran is an Assam field, in the Upper Assam basin near Digboi-Naharkatiya. Source: standard reference on Indian petroleum fields.

30. NDA 2024 (II)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Hydroelectric Power Plant)
A. Doyang
B. Gomuti
C. Kapili
D. Ranganadi
List II (State)
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Assam
3. Tripura
4. Nagaland
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) 4 3 2 1

Method. Hydroelectric plants by state

Doyang is in Nagaland (4), Gumti (printed Gomuti) in Tripura (3), Kopili (printed Kapili) in Assam (2) and Ranganadi in Arunachal Pradesh (1). So A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1. Source: standard reference on North-East hydro projects; UPSC spellings kept in the question.

31. NDA 2021 (II)
Which one of the following coalfields is not located in Jharkhand?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Umaria

Method. Coalfields of Jharkhand

Jharia, Ramgarh and Deogarh (Deoghar) are in Jharkhand. Umaria is a coalfield of Madhya Pradesh (standard reference: Geography of India, coal).

32. NDA 2021 (II)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Dam)
A. Hirakud
B. Panchet
C. Kosi
D. Ukai
List II (State)
1. Gujarat
2. Bihar
3. Odisha
4. Jharkhand
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) 3 4 2 1

Method. Dams and States

Hirakud (Mahanadi): Odisha (A-3). Panchet (Damodar): Jharkhand (B-4). Kosi barrage: Bihar (C-2). Ukai (Tapi): Gujarat (D-1). Code 3 4 2 1 (standard reference: Indian multipurpose projects).

33. NDA 2021 (I)
Which one of the following Oil Refineries is not located in Assam?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Tatipaka

Method. Oil refineries of Assam

Digboi, Guwahati (Noonmati), Bongaigaon and Numaligarh refineries are in Assam. Tatipaka (East Godavari) is a small refinery in Andhra Pradesh (standard reference: Indian oil refineries).

34. NDA 2020 (I)
Bagalihar, Dulhasti and Salal hydro power projects have been developed on which of the following rivers?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Chenab only

Method. Hydro projects on the Chenab

Baglihar (Ramban), Dulhasti (Kishtwar) and Salal (Reasi) are all in Jammu and Kashmir on the Chenab. Option d (standard reference: Indian hydel projects).

35. NDA 2019 (I)
National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Pune

Method. Location of National Water Academy

The National Water Academy of the Central Water Commission is at Khadakwasla, Pune (standard reference: Ministry of Jal Shakti, CWC).

36. NDA 2019 (I)
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing order?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal

Method. Proved coal reserves by State

In the Coal Inventory of India (as at 1 April 2018) the proved reserves rank Jharkhand first, then Odisha, then Chhattisgarh, then West Bengal. Option b (standard reference: Ministry of Coal, Coal Inventory).

37. NDA 2018 (I)
Which of the following are essential prerequisites for establishment of a thermal power station?
1. Availability of fossil fuels
2. Proximity to a river, lake or sea
3. Good transport network
4. Proximity to an urban centre
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Method. Location factors for thermal power

A thermal station needs fuel (coal or other fossil fuel), water from a river, lake or sea for cooling, and good transport for carrying the fuel: 1, 2 and 3. Proximity to an urban centre is useful but not essential, so 4 is out (standard reference: Geography of India, power).

38. NDA 2017 (II)
Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal field?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Himalayan mountain region

Method. Coalfield location

Kalakot is a small tertiary coalfield in the Rajouri-Riasi area of Jammu, in the Himalayan region. Assam's tertiary fields are Makum and Nazira, Damodar basin fields are Gondwana coal, and Kerala has lignite not coal (standard reference: Geography of India, coal).

39. NDA 2017 (II)
Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Nagpur

Method. Location of thermal power station

Koradi Thermal Power Station (MAHAGENCO) is at Koradi in Nagpur district, Maharashtra (standard reference: Indian power stations).

40. NDA 2017 (I)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Classification of resources)
(A) Basic inexhaustible resource
(B) Conventional non-renewable resource
(C) Non-conventional renewable resource
(D) Non-conventional non-renewable resource
List II (Example)
(1) Hydel power
(2) Coal
(3) Solar energy
(4) Natural gas
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) 3 2 1 4

Method. Classification of resources

Solar energy is the basic inexhaustible resource (A-3) and coal the conventional non-renewable one (B-2). Only option a has both. It then pairs hydel power with non-conventional renewable and natural gas with non-conventional non-renewable, which is how this list is built; the other options give natural gas or hydel to the first two classes, which no text supports (standard reference: resource classification, NCERT Class 12 and Geography of India).

34.4 Manufacturing industries

41. NDA 2026 (II)
Consider the following States:
I. Tripura
II. Chhattisgarh
III. Assam
IV. Odisha
How many of the States given above have jute mills?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) All four

Method. Jute mills outside West Bengal

Jute mills have been reported in all four: Tripura (Agartala), Chhattisgarh (Raigarh), Assam (Silghat) and Odisha. West Bengal holds most mills, but these states have a few. Source: Ministry of Textiles, state-wise jute mill lists (answers to Parliament, 2013-2016).

Some of these mills were closed at times; the Ministry of Textiles list of about 2016 shows Odisha 3, Assam 2, Chhattisgarh 2 and Tripura 1.

42. NDA 2025 (I)
Consider the following statements with regard to a steel plant:
I. It was setup in 1964 with Russian collaboration
II. It receives iron ore from the Rourkela region
III. Water and Hydel power is supplied by the Damodar Valley Corporation
Identify the Steel Plant on the basis of the above facts:
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Bokaro Steel Plant

Method. Identify the steel plant

Bokaro Steel Plant (Jharkhand) was set up with Soviet help, the company being formed in 1964. Its water and power come from the Damodar Valley Corporation (Konar and Tilaiya dams, Bokaro thermal station), and its iron ore from the Singhbhum-Kiriburu belt on the Jharkhand-Odisha border. Rourkela was German-aided (1950s), Bhilai Soviet-aided (1959) but not on the DVC, and Durgapur British-aided (1962). Source: standard reference on Indian iron and steel plants.

43. NDA 2024 (I)
Identify the Iron and Steel Plant on the basis of the given characteristics:
1. It receives coal from Jharia and iron-ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar.
2. Power for the electric furnaces is procured from Hirakund.
3. Water is obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.
Select the correct Iron and Steel Plant from the options given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Rourkela Steel Plant

Method. Identify the steel plant

Rourkela Steel Plant (Odisha) uses Jharia coal, iron ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar (Keonjhar), power from the Hirakud project and water from the Koel and Sankh rivers. Bhilai, Durgapur and Bokaro draw on different sources. Source: standard reference on Indian iron and steel plants.

44. NDA 2023 (II)
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Jamshedpur steel plant is located on the confluence of Damodar and Barakar

Method. Steel plants and their water sources

Jamshedpur (TISCO) stands at the confluence of the Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers, not Damodar and Barakar, so statement (b) is wrong. Bokaro lies in the Damodar basin (Garga-Damodar confluence), and Bhilai draws water from the Tandula reservoir. Salem (c) is loosely worded, since the plant takes its water from the Mettur reservoir on the Kaveri, but (b) is the plainly false one. Source: standard reference on Indian iron and steel plants.

Option (c) is only loosely true (Salem Steel Plant is near Mettur reservoir water on the Kaveri, not on the river bank); (b) is the clearly false statement and the intended answer.

45. NDA 2023 (II)
Which one of the following pairs of city and industry is NOT correctly matched?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Raniganj: Iron and steel industry

Method. City-industry pairs

Raniganj (West Bengal) is the coalfield town of the Damodar valley; it is not an iron and steel city, so (d) is wrong. Saharanpur is a paper-industry centre, Chanderi (Madhya Pradesh) is known for cotton and silk handloom textiles, and Bhadohi is the carpet centre of Uttar Pradesh. Source: standard reference on Indian industrial centres.

46. NDA 2018 (I)
Which one of the following centres is NOT known for iron and steel industry?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Renukoot

Method. Iron and steel centres

Bhadravati (Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Works, Karnataka), Salem (Tamil Nadu) and Visakhapatnam (RINL) are steel centres. Renukoot (Uttar Pradesh) is known for aluminium (Hindalco) (standard reference: Geography of India, industries).

47. NDA 2017 (I)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Industry)
(A) Petrochemical
(B) Aircraft
(C) Machine tools
(D) Cotton textiles
List II (Place)
(1) Coimbatore
(2) Pinjore
(3) Bengaluru
(4) Bongaigaon
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) 4 3 2 1

Method. Industry-place matching

Petrochemical complex: Bongaigaon (Assam), A-4. Aircraft (HAL): Bengaluru, B-3. Machine tools (HMT): Pinjore (Haryana), C-2. Cotton textiles: Coimbatore, D-1. Code 4 3 2 1 (standard reference: Indian industrial geography).

48. NDA 2017 (I)
Which of the following regions is/⁠are NOT known for cotton-textile industry?
(1) Mumbai – Pune region
(2) Madurai – Coimbatore-region
(3) Dhanbad – Jamshedpur region
(4) Indore – Ujjain region
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 3 only

Method. Locating cotton-textile centres

Mumbai-Pune, Madurai-Coimbatore and Indore-Ujjain are all cotton-textile regions. Dhanbad-Jamshedpur is a coal and iron-and-steel region, not a cotton-textile one. So only 3 is NOT known for it (standard reference: Geography of India, industries).

34.5 Railways and roads

49. NDA 2023 (II)
The North-south and East-west Road Corridors of India cross each other at which of the following cities?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Jhansi

Method. NHDP corridors

The North-South Corridor (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) and the East-West Corridor (Silchar to Porbandar) of the National Highways Development Project cross at Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh. Bhopal, Itarsi and Gwalior lie on or near the North-South line only. Source: NHAI description of NHDP Phase I-II corridors.

50. NDA 2023 (I)
Which of the following scheme(s) is/⁠are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana?
1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas
2. Development of coastal roads
3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Method. Components of Bharatmala Pariyojana

Bharatmala covers border and international connectivity roads, coastal and port connectivity roads, and improving the efficiency of national corridors, along with economic corridors, feeder routes and expressways. All three are included (standard reference: MoRTH).

51. NDA 2022 (II)
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Railway Zone)
A. East Central
B. North Eastern
C. Northeast Frontier
D. North Western
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Gorakhpur
2. Jaipur
3. Hajipur
4. Maligaon
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) 3 1 4 2

Method. Railway zones and headquarters

East Central: Hajipur (A-3). North Eastern: Gorakhpur (B-1). Northeast Frontier: Maligaon, Guwahati (C-4). North Western: Jaipur (D-2). Code 3 1 4 2 (standard reference: Indian Railways zone list).

52. NDA 2022 (II)
Consider the following statements:
1. Maharashtra State has the maximum share of national highways (length in kilometres).
2. The nature of terrain and the level of economic development is one of the reasons for the maximum share of national highways in Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/⁠are correct?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Method. State-wise share of national highways

Maharashtra has the longest national highway network among the States (about 17,000 km). Its varied terrain and high level of economic development are given as reasons. Both are correct (standard reference: MoRTH).

53. NDA 2021 (I)
The Headquarters of South-Eastern Railway is located at
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Kolkata.

Method. Railway zone headquarters

South Eastern Railway has its headquarters at Garden Reach, Kolkata. Bilaspur is South East Central, Secunderabad South Central, Bhubaneswar East Coast (standard reference: Indian Railways zone list).

54. NDA 2018 (II)
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Railway Zone)
A. West Central
B. South East Central
C. East Central
D. North Eastern
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Jabalpur
2. Gorakhpur
3. Bilaspur
4. Hajipur
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 1 3 4 2

Method. Railway zones and headquarters

West Central: Jabalpur (A-1). South East Central: Bilaspur (B-3). East Central: Hajipur (C-4). North Eastern: Gorakhpur (D-2). Code 1 3 4 2 (standard reference: Indian Railways zone list).

55. NDA 2018 (I)
In which one of the following places, Headquarters of a Railway Zone is located?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Hajipur

Method. Railway zone headquarters

Hajipur is the headquarters of East Central Railway. Kanpur and Lucknow are only divisional or sub-headquarters (North Eastern Railway is at Gorakhpur), and New Jalpaiguri is a division of Northeast Frontier Railway, whose headquarters is Maligaon (standard reference: Indian Railways zone list).

56. NDA 2018 (I)
Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/⁠are correct?
1. It is a registered society.
2. It is a collaborative body of both Central Government and State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Method. Indian Academy of Highway Engineers

IAHE, Noida, was set up in 1983 as a registered society under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, as a joint venture of the Central and State Governments for training and research. Both statements are correct (standard reference: MoRTH).

57. NDA 2018 (I)
Bharatmala Project is related to
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Improving road connectivity

Method. Bharatmala Project

Bharatmala Pariyojana is the Central road and highways programme (launched 2017) for corridors, border and coastal roads, and port connectivity. Interlinking of rivers is the National River Linking Project (standard reference: MoRTH).

58. NDA 2017 (II)
The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence. Which of the following have taken place in recent years?
1. Gauge conversion
2. Track electrification
3. Automatic signals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Method. Modernisation of Indian Railways

Gauge conversion (unigauge project), track electrification and automatic signalling have all been taken up in recent years, so all three statements are correct (standard reference: Indian Railways, Geography of India).

59. NDA 2017 (I)
The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Kolkata

Method. Railway zone headquarters

Eastern Railway, the oldest zone, has its headquarters at Fairlie Place, Kolkata. Bhubaneswar is East Coast Railway, Hajipur East Central, Guwahati (Maligaon) Northeast Frontier (standard reference: Indian Railways zone list).

60. NDA 2017 (I)
Which one of the following States does NOT have the Headquarters of any Railway Zone?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Jharkhand

Method. Railway zone headquarters by State

Zone headquarters: Hajipur, Bihar (East Central); Bhubaneswar, Odisha (East Coast); Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh (South East Central). Jharkhand has none (Ranchi and Dhanbad are only divisions). As at the 2017 sitting there were 16 zones (standard reference: Indian Railways zone list).

61. NDA 2017 (I)
Which one of the following sections of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is the longest in terms of route distance?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Kolkata – Chennai

Method. Golden Quadrilateral section lengths

NHAI section lengths: Delhi-Kolkata about 1453 km, Kolkata-Chennai about 1684 km, Chennai-Mumbai about 1290 km, Mumbai-Delhi about 1419 km. Kolkata-Chennai is the longest (standard reference: NHAI, Golden Quadrilateral).

34.6 Ports and inland waterways

62. NDA 2026 (I)
Consider the following statements about Kamarajar Port:
I. It is an example of corporatized public company.
II. It was earlier known as Ennore Port.
III. It is a natural port.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) I and II only

Method. Kamarajar Port

Kamarajar Port was earlier Ennore Port (renamed 2014) and is the first major port to be corporatised, as Ennore Port Limited, a public company under the Companies Act. It is an artificial, man-made port built on a coastline with no natural harbour, so III is wrong. I and II are right. Source: standard reference on Indian ports.

63. NDA 2025 (I)
An offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce pressure from which of the following major ports in India?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Kandla Port

Method. Vadinar offshore terminal

The Vadinar single-point-mooring oil terminal in the Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat) was built to relieve Kandla (Deendayal), the nearby major port, of crude-oil traffic. Cochin, Mormugao and New Mangalore are on the west coast far to the south. Source: standard reference on Indian ports.

64. NDA 2024 (I)
Identify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics:
1. It is more than a century old port on the west coast of India.
2. It is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole.
3. A deep draft channel of about 14 metres depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour.
Select the correct sea-port from the options given below:
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Mormugao Port

Method. Identify the port

Mormugao (Goa, opened 1888) is the century-old west-coast port on the Zuari estuary, a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and a mole, with an approach channel dredged to about 14 m. Deendayal (Kandla) is a tidal creek port, Cochin is a lagoon harbour and JNPT dates from 1989, so none of them fits. Source: standard reference on Indian ports.

65. NDA 2023 (I)
Deendayal Port was earlier known as:
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Kandla Port

Method. Port renaming (2017)

Kandla Port in Gujarat (Gulf of Kutch) was renamed Deendayal Port in 2017 (Deendayal Port Authority). Paradip (Odisha), Tuticorin (now V.O. Chidambaranar Port) and Visakhapatnam are different ports. Source: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways notification, 2017.

66. NDA 2022 (II)
Which of the following statements is/⁠are correct?
1. India has one of the longest navigable inland water networks in the world.
2. Inland waterways presently help in transporting about 25 percent of the total cargo movement.
3. About 111 inland waterways have been declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

Method. Inland waterways of India

India's navigable waterways are among the longest in the world: 1 is correct. Inland waterways carry only about 2 per cent of cargo, not 25: 2 is wrong. The National Waterways Act 2016 declared 111 waterways national waterways: 3 is correct. Answer 1 and 3 only (standard reference: Inland Waterways Authority of India).

67. NDA 2021 (II)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Place)
A. Mumbai
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Chennai
D. Kochi
List II (Feature)
1. Queen of the Arabian Sea
2. Biggest port of India
3. Land-locked harbour
4. Oldest port on the Eastern Coast
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) 2 3 4 1

Method. Ports and their features

Mumbai is the biggest port of India (A-2). Visakhapatnam is a landlocked harbour (B-3). Chennai is the oldest port on the eastern coast (C-4). Kochi is the Queen of the Arabian Sea (D-1). Code 2 3 4 1 (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, ports).

68. NDA 2020 (I)
Deendayal Port is located at
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Gujarat

Method. Port location

Deendayal Port, formerly Kandla Port, is in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat. It was renamed Deendayal Port in 2017 (standard reference: Indian ports).

69. NDA 2019 (II)
Paradeep Port is located on the delta of river
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Mahanadi

Method. Location of Paradeep Port

Paradip port, Odisha, lies near the mouth of the Mahanadi on the Bay of Bengal, on the Mahanadi delta (standard reference: Indian ports).

70. NDA 2019 (I)
Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which Indian State?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

Method. Location of Kamarajar Port

Kamarajar Port (formerly Ennore Port, commissioned 2001) is on the Coromandel coast north of Chennai, in Tamil Nadu. It was made a major port to handle thermal coal for the TNEB and NTPC stations (standard reference: Indian ports).

71. NDA 2018 (II)
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Major Port)
A. Kolkata
B. Mormugao
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Paradip
List-II (Location)
1. Landlocked area
2. In the delta region
3. On the riverside
4. On the entrance of the estuary
Code:
A B C D
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) 3 4 1 2

Method. Major ports and their sites

Kolkata lies on the Hooghly riverside (A-3). Mormugao sits at the entrance of the Zuari estuary (B-4). Visakhapatnam is a landlocked harbour (C-1). Paradip is in the Mahanadi delta region (D-2). Code 3 4 1 2 (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, ports).

34.7 Population, settlements, languages and economic activities

72. NDA 2026 (II)
The ‘Agricultural Population Density’ is referred to as the ratio of the:
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Total agricultural population to Net cultivable land

Method. Population density measures

Agricultural density is the ratio of the total agricultural population to the net cultivable (cultivated) area. Physiological density is the total population divided by net cultivated area, which is option (a). Source: NCERT Class 12, Fundamentals of Human Geography, ch. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth.

NCERT's term is 'net cultivable area', which matches the option's wording.

73. NDA 2026 (I)
Choose the correct set of the following cities in descending order (according to the Degree of Urbanization definitions in 2025) in terms of population.
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Jakarta, Dhaka, Tokyo, New Delhi, Manila

Method. UN World Urbanization Prospects 2025

On the Degree of Urbanisation basis used in WUP 2025, Jakarta is the largest city (about 42 million), then Dhaka (about 36.6 million), Tokyo (about 33.4 million), New Delhi (about 30.2 million) and Manila (about 24.7 million). This matches option (b) only; options with Tokyo first follow the older list. Source: UN DESA, World Urbanization Prospects 2025.

74. NDA 2022 (II)
Consider the following statements on computation of density:
1. Physiological density can be computed by dividing the total population by the net cultivable area.
2. Agricultural density can be computed by dividing the total agricultural population by the net cultivable area.
3. Population density can be computed by dividing the total population by the total area.
How many of the above statements is/⁠are correct?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) 3

Method. Types of population density

Physiological density is total population over net cultivable area; agricultural density is agricultural population over net cultivable area; population density is total population over total area. All three statements follow NCERT's definitions, so 3 are correct (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, Fundamentals of Human Geography, chapter on population).

75. NDA 2022 (II)
The activities or services focussed on creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are referred to as
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) quinary activities

Method. Quinary activities

Quinary activities are the highest level of services: creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas, and evaluation of technology, the 'gold collar' professions. Quaternary activities cover research and information services (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, Fundamentals of Human Geography, economic activities).

76. NDA 2022 (I)
Which one of the following cities was the first to attain the status of a ‘megacity’?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) New York

Method. First megacity

A megacity has over 10 million people. New York was the first to cross that mark, in 1950, followed by Tokyo (United Nations, World Urbanization Prospects).

77. NDA 2020 (I)
Which one of the following is the oldest scientific department of Government of India?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Survey of India

Method. Oldest scientific department

Survey of India was established in 1767, making it the oldest. IMD dates from 1875, DRDO from 1958 and the Department of Biotechnology from 1986 (standard reference: Survey of India history).

78. NDA 2020 (I)
According to Census of India, 2011, which one among the following is the least populated state in India?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Punjab

Method. Population of States, Census 2011

Census 2011: Maharashtra 11.24 crore, Madhya Pradesh 7.26 crore, Odisha 4.20 crore, Punjab 2.77 crore. Punjab is least populated of these (Census of India 2011).

79. NDA 2020 (I)
The speakers of major Indian languages belong to how many language families?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Four

Method. Language families of India

Indian languages belong to four families: Indo-European (Indo-Aryan), Dravidian, Austric (Austro-Asiatic) and Sino-Tibetan (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy).

80. NDA 2019 (II)
The Munda language group belongs to which family?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Austric

Method. Language families of India

The Munda languages (Santali, Mundari, Ho) belong to the Austric (Austro-Asiatic) family (standard reference: NCERT Class 12, India: People and Economy, language families).

81. NDA 2018 (II)
Which one of the following Indian States has recorded negative growth of population as per Census 2011?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Nagaland

Method. Population growth, Census 2011

In 2001-2011 Nagaland recorded a decline of about 0.6 per cent, the only State to do so. Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura grew (Census of India 2011).

82. NDA 2018 (II)
Which one of the following is the correct descending order of Indian States in terms of sex ratio as per Census 2011?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) Meghalaya—Manipur—Mizoram—Tripura

Method. Sex ratio ordering, Census 2011

Sex ratio (females per 1000 males), Census 2011: Meghalaya 989, Manipur 985, Mizoram 976, Tripura 960. Descending: Meghalaya − Manipur − Mizoram − Tripura (Census of India 2011).

83. NDA 2018 (I)
Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?
Answer and solution

Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

Method. Female literacy among Union Territories, Census 2011

Female literacy, Census 2011: Lakshadweep about 88 per cent, Puducherry about 81, Chandigarh about 81, Andaman and Nicobar about 79. Lakshadweep is highest (Census of India 2011).

84. NDA 2017 (I)
According to the Census 2011, the density of population in which one among the following States is the lowest?
Answer and solution

Answer: (d) Mizoram

Method. Census 2011 population density of the North-Eastern States

Census of India 2011 densities per sq km: Mizoram 52, Sikkim 86, Nagaland 119, Manipur 122. Mizoram is the lowest of the four (Arunachal Pradesh, 17, is the lowest in the country but is not an option).

85. NDA 2017 (I)
Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is NOT correctly matched?
Answer and solution

Answer: (a) Tharu: Madhya Pradesh

Method. Tribe-State pairs

Adi: Arunachal Pradesh, correct. Irula: Kerala (and Tamil Nadu), correct. Shaharia (Sahariya): Rajasthan (Baran), correct. Tharu live in the Terai of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, not Madhya Pradesh, so pair a is wrong (standard reference: Indian tribes, Census of India).

86. NDA 2017 (I)
Consider the following Indian States:
(1) Bihar
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Haryana
Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above States on the basis of percentage of State's population to total population of India (based on census 2011)?
Answer and solution

Answer: (c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1

Method. Ordering States by share of national population, Census 2011

Share of India's population (Census 2011): Jammu and Kashmir 1.04 per cent, Haryana 2.09, Rajasthan 5.66, Bihar 8.60. Ascending order 3 − 4 − 2 − 1 (Census of India 2011).

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